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1 John is talking about Christ's first coming, when He was clothed with flesh and tabernacle among His people. This was being denied by the Gnostics and others who claimed Christ was some type of phantasm.

Sorry -- I don't see that John's text is limited to that first 26 AD coming. It can very well apply to that first preterist ethereal coming in 70 AD.

You know that it does not apply to partial preterist (like you find around here) because you know that we have consistently affirmed a future bodily second coming.

I know nothing of the sort. If partial preterists confess that Christ came in 70 AD in some way other than in the flesh, then John's text covers them.

Do you confess that Jesus Christ came not in the flesh but in some other way in 70 AD????

1,607 posted on 11/21/2007 2:40:03 PM PST by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)

To: Uncle Chip; tabsternager; 1000 silverlings; Lee N. Field; Lord_Calvinus; wmfights; Alex Murphy

I know nothing of the sort.

Because you choose not to.

It is difficult to carry on a discussion with someone who is intellectually dishonest to the degree you are.

1,611 posted on 11/21/2007 4:46:31 PM PST by topcat54 ("Dispensationalism -- an error of Biblical proportions.")

To: Uncle Chip; topcat54

It's wrong of you to ascribe beliefs to partial preterists that we have said consistently we don't believe. All partial preterists believe in a future bodily second coming of Jesus Christ.

These dispensationalist discussions can be rancorous, but they don't have to be made more complicated by those kinds of misstatements.

1,613 posted on 11/21/2007 5:02:56 PM PST by Dr. Eckleburg ("I don't think they want my respect; I think they want my submission." - Flemming Rose)

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