I disagree. jesus got His human nature from his mother, He was 100% divine because He was God, He was 100% man because of Mary.
It is taught that original sin passes from the father to the child, not the mother. Jesus had a sinless God as His Father. We are told it passed through Adam not Eve,
Please read St Thomas Aquinas on this
http://books.google.com/books?id=d-TKgDbTDlYC&pg=PA25&lpg=PA25&dq=original+sin+passed+from+the+father&source=web&ots=ZSSQMQ81rX&sig=50cy-iFowMKe6O0VIefIGwIbSo4#PPA5,M1
He believed and taught that original sin is passed on by the fathers semen.
I do not know about its presence in the semen, but scripture always speaks of the sin of the fathers and never the mothers. There was no need for Mary to be sinless.
Um, I agree. So where does that put us?
I'm not certain about the father's semen part, although that's an intringuing possibility. But would it mean that a child begotten by some method other than a father's semen would not have original sin?
I'm referring to cloning. and also to the theoretical possibility of human parthenogenesis or using female stem cells to fertilize eggs instead of male semen. So far just a lesbian fantasy, but supposedly this is just around the corner.
BTW the Catholic Church would say all such artificial human reproduction is immoral in any case, but, rathe dreadfully, it doesn't look like we can stop it.
Where's that overweening political power of the Catholic Church when you really need it? (Kinda joking, kinda not.)