Since None and All are being used, Jesus must be included in the none that are righteous and sinners...which is absurd.
It ain't. It's kind of pre-theology. Paul was not as troubled as I am about rigorous logical consistency. He was great. I am not.
I don't think a verse like this ("...there are NONE righteous, no, not one...") is conclusive in itself, because the Bible also has passages like this:
Genesis 6:9
This is the account of Noah and his family. Noah was a righteous man, blameless among the people
Psalm 141:5
When a righteous man strike mes that is a kindness...
Matthew 1:19
Because Joseph her husband was a righteous man...
2 Peter 2: 7-9
... and if he rescued Lot, a righteous man, who was distressed by the depraved conduct of the lawless (for that righteous man, living among them day after day, was tormented in his righteous soul by the lawless deeds he saw and heard)
Plus Enoch and Elijah apparently never died, which makes one wonder whether they sinned, since the wages of sin is death...
Should the Bible have said, "For none are righteous EXCEPT Mary, Noah, the Psalmist's friend, Joseph, Lot, Enoch, Elijah...."??
I mention all this not to "prove" that they weren't sinners, but in order to illustrate the fact that these apparently contadictory passages cannot be resolved by proof-texting alone, but need a more complex interpretation.
As to Mary's sinlessness, if you're sincerely interested I can address that by referring you to this rather long Internet site --- suitable for several days' study (!!) --- but your question deserves a comprehensive answer.
Short answer: the Angel greeted her by a name or title never applied to any human being before or since: Full of Grace ("gratia plena": the Churches that do speak Greek call her "panagia," which means all-holy, which is equivalent to "gratia plena")---
And you know that when a person gets a new name from God, that always means something big: a special gift from God alone. "He who is mighty has done great things for me."