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To: jo kus; MarkBsnr; irishtenor; HarleyD; Dr. Eckleburg; wmfights; blue-duncan; kosta50
What do you mean by "ordain"? Are you saying that God wills us to sin, or He intends for us to sin? I am not sure about what you mean.

By "ordain" I mean "that which is set into God's plan". Many times, our sin DOES fit into God's plan so it is ordained. For example, God did not REACT to Pharaoh's obstinacy. He ordained it for His purposes. It was the same with Judas. It was not "fortuitous" that Judas would betray Jesus at precisely the right time. It was ordained.

Ah, but God "built" them that way, so how is it Hitler's fault that he killed millions of people indirectly? He had no free will and God ordained it. Thus, God will be judged in the after life for "ordaining" a Hitler?

There is no one qualified to judge God, so I don't understand the suggestion. It is Hitler's fault for what he did because he and everyone else is responsible for his own sin. God had no duty to grace him to such a degree as to prevent it. For His reasons, God passed over Hitler when He was giving out saving grace. Although to us, the horror of the holocaust is unimaginable, it nonetheless served God's purpose that it happened.

8,936 posted on 10/13/2007 1:04:07 AM PDT by Forest Keeper (It is a joy to me to know that God had my number, before He created numbers.)
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To: Forest Keeper

By “ordain” I mean “that which is set into God’s plan”. Many times, our sin DOES fit into God’s plan so it is ordained.


Many times? Either God foreordains everything or He does not.


8,959 posted on 10/13/2007 8:35:26 AM PDT by MarkBsnr (V. Angelus Domini nuntiavit Mariae. R. Et concepit de Spiritu Sancto.)
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To: Forest Keeper
By "ordain" I mean "that which is set into God's plan". Many times, our sin DOES fit into God's plan so it is ordained.

AH, so does God actively ensure that man is sinning so that His Plan is fulfilled? Or does God know what will happen? We have discussed simultaneity before and how God views time. Your explanation makes it sound like it is God's plan that man sins, and that God ENSURES that man does it so that His plan is fulfilled.

This is a key question, I think.

There is no one qualified to judge God, so I don't understand the suggestion.

If man is worthless and has no free will - because we "all" know that God can only be supreme if man is absolutely crushed and is nothing - then WHOSE deeds will be judged, as the Bible suggests over and over? God or man? When the Bible says that "man will be judged based on his deeds", does the Bible actually mean that God will be, because HE has "ordained" it and ensured that man sins - and man cannot do anything BUT sin?

I am beginning to see that the "reformed" theology has an incredible problem here... God is responsible for sin... While you may deny it, clearly, that is what you seem to believe. That is where this heresy takes you. In your attempt to overstate God's sovereignty, you end up accusing God of planning and ordaining sin...

FK, you are better than that. Run, do not walk, from this ridiculous theology.

Regards

8,988 posted on 10/13/2007 6:29:00 PM PDT by jo kus
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