I know the formula, but what precisely does this mean?
My perception of the Apostolic view is that "yes",
Yes God's will is that we have free will. How is He trumped?
it is axiomatic that God's will is that all men be saved, yet we know they are not.
We have free will, we know this as well as we can know anything we experience of reality. We have your axiom above and we have that not all are saved. Ok.
Given these three truth statements: Man has free will; God wishes all to be saved; all are not saved; can we not arrive at the simple logical conclusion? Without the need to derive an obvious untruth about free will?
I know the formula, but what precisely does this mean?
It means that our sovereign and omnipotent God ALWAYS gets what He wants. :) It means that God did not transfer the power to humans to thwart His will. God the creator always gets what He wants, and we humans always get what God wants. It's a balance. :)
Yes God's will is that we have free will. How is He trumped?
My understanding is that an Apostolic tenet is that God's will is for all men to be saved. By free will, man's will trumps God's will because not all men are saved.
Given these three truth statements: Man has free will; God wishes all to be saved; all are not saved; can we not arrive at the simple logical conclusion? Without the need to derive an obvious untruth about free will?
OK, I'm all ears. :)