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To: kosta50; MarkBsnr; P-Marlowe; xzins; Kolokotronis; jo kus; D-fendr
According to +Paul's view, wickedness would have no effect on us since God is not affected by wickedness. In fact, in Phil. 1:10 he speaks of being "blameless" to the end.

That is decidedly NOT Paul's view since he laments doing what he does not wish to do, but that which he wishes to do, he does not. (Rom. 7:15-20) Paul says explicitly that the wickedness of sin still lives in us to an extent. Phil. 1:10 is part of Paul's prayer. Who wouldn't pray for a loved one to never sin again?

I also associate myself with Marlowe's excellent response. :)

8,058 posted on 10/03/2007 12:14:53 PM PDT by Forest Keeper (It is a joy to me to know that God had my number, before He created numbers.)
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To: Forest Keeper; MarkBsnr; P-Marlowe; xzins; Kolokotronis; jo kus; D-fendr
That is decidedly NOT Paul's view since he laments doing what he does not wish to do, but that which he wishes to do, he does not. (Rom. 7:15-20) Paul says explicitly that the wickedness of sin still lives in us to an extent. Phil. 1:10 is part of Paul's prayer

But the question is does it have an effect on us, not whether it lives in us and we resist it; wickedness is in our fallen nagture, so naturally it will live in us! If it has no effect on us then we don't sin. But if it does have an effect on us then we are wicked and how can one who is wicked be justified?

King David repented of his wickedness. He did not continue to covet other peoples' wives or arrange to kill their husbands. He gave up his wickedness in repentance. One is either wicked or just. You can't be both.

8,175 posted on 10/03/2007 6:55:16 PM PDT by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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