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I have seen the question asked a hundred times: "do you believe that Jesus died on the cross to pay for all of our sins, past, present, and future?" The answer from your side is always "No".

Are you sure? I do not recall any Catholic or Othodox saying that. You are confusing "Jesus paying for all of our sins" and "Jesus actions applied to the individual". Jesus died for all sins, past, present and future of ALL men! Not just the self-proclaimed saved. However, it becomes clear that men must repent to apply Christ's work to their own individual self. God offers His salvation freely to all, since He desires all men to be saved. God leads men to repent, God gives men the power to repent. Some do, and some don't. Those that do repent of PAST sins are forgiven - they have Jesus' work applied to their souls. And Jesus CONTINUES to intercede for our sake and the sake of those who have NOT repented yet. IF Christ's sins take away all sins without man's repentance, then why does Jesus intercede TODAY for us?

I am certain this has been said before...

Regards

FK: "I have seen the question asked a hundred times: "do you believe that Jesus died on the cross to pay for all of our sins, past, present, and future?" The answer from your side is always "No"."

Are you sure? I do not recall any Catholic or Orthodox saying that. You are confusing "Jesus paying for all of our sins" and "Jesus actions applied to the individual". Jesus died for all sins, past, present and future of ALL men!

That could be. My mindset was in the context of losing one's salvation. If that is possible, then Christ's death did not pay to cover the sin that caused that, i.e. at that moment the person is headed to hell so the debt is not paid. A debt is either paid in full, or it is not. Based on that, I said what I said. I have long been of the mind that Apostolics believed that Christ's death only applied to original sin, and that every subsequent serious sin had to be separately handled through absolution. However, since this is the second (or third, depending on Kolo's answer to my response to him) recent post challenging that supposition, I am happy to recalibrate my understanding. :)

IF Christ's work takes away all sins without man's repentance, then why does Jesus intercede TODAY for us?

We say that repentance is required also, but we do not see it as being piecemeal. Christ died once and for all for all of our sins, including future sins. Likewise, we repent once and for all of all of our sins, including future sins.