Was God "partial" to the Israelites?
Thus saith the LORD that made thee, and formed thee from the womb, which will help thee; Fear not, O Jacob, my servant; and thou, Jesurun, whom I have chosen. For I will pour water upon him that is thirsty, and floods upon the dry ground: I will pour my spirit upon thy seed, and my blessing upon thine offspring" -- Isaiah 44:1-3"Yet now hear, O Jacob my servant; and Israel, whom I have chosen:
I don't know, why don't we try to answer that question from a Christian point of view?
"for You are not partial to any." [Mat 22:16]
"God is not one to show partiality." [Act 10:34]
"For there is no partiality with God." [Rom 2:11]
"God shows no partiality." [Gal 2:6]
Christians further believe that it is a sin to be partial.
"But if you show partiality, you are committing sin and are convicted by the law as transgressors." [James 2:9]
The Old Testament shows that the Jews also knew this.
"God who does not show partiality nor take a bribe." [Deut 10:17]
"Who shows no partiality to princes." [Job 34:18]
In the Christian mindset, it is to be understood that God, who is the Perfect Judge, is perfectly impartial, unbiased, shows no favoritism, or respect for human titles or external appearances of men.
To answer your question, God did not choose Israel so they can boast or claim special favor. He chose Israel to bring salvation to the world. He picked the Jews to do His work: to make God known to other nations, and not to boast about it.
(was that a barb directed at +Paul?)"My brethren, do not hold your faith in our glorious Lord Jesus Christ with an attitude of personal favoritism." [James 2:1]
I think your verse generator was made in Geneva. It's partial. :)