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So, God's will and [H]is being are always united as one.

That's what I meant, yes.

No, to be immutable simple means that God's essence is always consistent and in harmony.

Mutor, mutari, mutatus -- I change. First conjugation deponent verb. (One of the about 3 that I remember from 7th grade.)"Mutation" is a modern cognate (See the 3rd principle part, mutatus). So immutable means unchangeable. SO I think we must be looking at the word differently.

Gen 1:31 doesn't say He enjoyed it. The relevant part says .... hummeda hummeda, Berishith, got it right here ...."And Elohim saw all that he had done/made and behold, very good." To say that that verse says He "enjoyed it" is to assume what's to be proved. All the text offers is an assessment of it.

I'm more or less fine with everything you say after the big chunk of my blather,but I"m not entirely sure of the relevance.

UNLESS you're saying that in your view God's passions are not unruly and so do not conflict with His will, which we would also say of Jesus. I would NOT say that the failure to experience a feeling of affection for one's spouse is a sin. It might be a sign of our fallen state, (passion out of sync with will) but it's not itself sinful, anymore than a headache or an itch is sinful in itself.

Look: I know I'm setting myself up for a huge brick wall down the road. Specifically I have no clue about how/whether the Incarnation changes the immutable God. But I'm pretty clear that outside of the period between the Nativity and the Resurrection things didn't "happen to" God.

It's a very fine question, because ti touches on so many very basic questions.

[So, God's will and [H]is being are always united as one.]

That's what I meant, yes.

No, to be immutable simple means that God's essence is always consistent and in harmony. Mutor, mutari, mutatus -- I change. First conjugation deponent verb. (One of the about 3 that I remember from 7th grade.)"Mutation" is a modern cognate (See the 3rd principle part, mutatus). So immutable means unchangeable. SO I think we must be looking at the word differently.

Well, if you look at Websters 1828 you will see that it is also defined as 'the quality that renders change or alteration impossible', alteration is in turn defined as 'the act of making different or of varying in some particular.

So, God is immutable in that He doesn't change, that all of His attributes always act in full accord with one another, never deviating from their own particular perfections which are always absolute and infinite.

So, to be immutable for God is not to be immobile since Love is always active.

God gave an assessment of it and called it good.

God thus, was pleased with it.

God took pleasure in His Son (Mat.17:5).

He says that without faith it is impossible to please Him (Heb.11:6), so He is pleased by faith, as indicated by the listing of those names in that chapter.

I'm more or less fine with everything you say after the big chunk of my blather,but I"m not entirely sure of the relevance. UNLESS you're saying that in your view God's passions are not unruly and so do not conflict with His will, which we would also say of Jesus. I would NOT say that the failure to experience a feeling of affection for one's spouse is a sin. It might be a sign of our fallen state, (passion out of sync with will) but it's not itself sinful, anymore than a headache or an itch is sinful in itself.

Anytime a Christian is not bearing the fruits of the Spirit (Gal.5:22-23), he is sinning.

One is either in the Spirit or in the Flesh. (Rom.6)

Nothing ever happens to God, God allows certain things to occur, but He always knows the end from the beginning and is always acting to complete His Plan, which is a perfect Universe without sin and death.