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To: wmfights
Does your translation say Aramaic? My NKJV says Hebrew

That's what you get for reading KJV...it kees you misinformed because it is not onyl a bad translation, but its out of context. Maybe that's why the Protestants love it so much.

Read bible copmmentaries and discover the world. In reference to the Greek word Habrais used in Act 26:14: "Hebrew, the Hebrew language, not that however in which the OT was written but the Chaldee, which at the time of Jesus and the apostles had long superseded it in Palestine" [Blue Letter Bible, Crosswalk NT Greek]

"'Chaldee' or 'Chaldean Aramaic' used to be common terms for the Aramaic of the Chaldean dynasty of Babylonia. It was used to describe Biblical Aramaic, which was, however, written in a later style. It is not to be confused with the modern language Chaldean Neo-Aramaic." [Aramaic Language, Wikipedia]

5,311 posted on 09/03/2007 12:59:21 PM PDT by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50
the Greek word Habrais used in Act 26:14: "Hebrew, the Hebrew language,

So even you translations say Hebrew. Why is it so important to claim it was written in Aramaic, or Greek, keep in mind the common practice is for people to write in the language they speak.

5,315 posted on 09/03/2007 1:08:23 PM PDT by wmfights (LUKE 9:49-50 , MARK 9:38-41)
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To: kosta50
You never really answered my question. If I'm touching something you don't want to discuss I'll stop.

Have you ever gone off by yourself and prayed to our LORD asking him if you are one of his?

5,318 posted on 09/03/2007 1:15:07 PM PDT by wmfights (LUKE 9:49-50 , MARK 9:38-41)
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