LOL! I'll try to be good. :)
Long story short, the Latins now accept that the eternal origin of the HS is exclusively the Father.
Ah, I didn't know that. Thank you. I agree with you that most Protestants probably don't think it is a huge issue. The scriptures don't appear to be pristinely clear on the subject.
FK: "...is there something inherently superior to the Greek language itself?"
You ask a Greek a question like that? Ελλα, βραι παιδακι μου!
Religion Moderator alert: ABUSE!, ABUSE!, ABUSE! :)
But the fact is that the translations we have are all over the lot and those heterodox translations lead to very very different theologies.
Without minimizing that there are clear differences, I'm not sure it is the translation that really makes the theology. Anecdotally, the first Bible I ever read was an RSV, and IIRC that is an approved version for Latins. I don't remember coming to any Latin conclusions that would seriously contradict what I believe today. I think to a much larger degree it is the totality of the word, plus extra-scriptural works that form theologies on a practical level.
FK: "In Calvin's theology, the elect absolutely need access to God's word, be it in oral or written form. Otherwise, we would have to claim an irrational faith, and we do not."
Why would you have to claim an irrational faith if your access to "God's word" (I assume you don't mean Ο Λογος) is not limited to oral and written transmission?
I'm not sure if I meant "Ο Λογος". I'll have to think about that. :) Anyway, I didn't say that supplemental material to the word would require an irrational faith. I said that the EXCLUSION of the word would require an irrational faith. It wouldn't be based on anything authoritative.
Scripture isn't magic, FK.
But its truth is real power.
Orthodox believe that is [how] we all attain theosis; you folks believe that it is eternal salvation for the elect, eternal damnation for the rest, but in either event, the Bible tells us how to conduct ourselves. If Orthodoxy also teaches that through iconography, liturgical life, etc., does that make Orthodoxy "irrational"?
No. To the extent it is consistent with the Bible in what it represents it is fine and rational.
The Ο Λογος in "Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος." Some people think that the Word spoken of here means the literal words of God. Its John 1:1, FK.