This is still incomplete.
Well, that sentence is certainly not intended to to be definitive, if that's what you mean.
What is the source of these rights?
We have reason and free will, thus our inalienable rights are self evident.
I'm contending that rationalism alone cannot be the sole basis of moral/ethical decisions for humans. If it were we would be frozen in inaction.
Were rational prehistoric men "frozen in inaction", because they did not have developed religious concepts? Very arguable.
Rationalism can only be a tool used once the foundational absolute values are determined.
Man wasn't rational before he developed/determined "foundational absolute values"? I think you're putting the cart before the horse.
Hitler was very rational. It wasn't his reason that was at fault, but his values. His immorality was not due to faulty reasoning. The same with Marx.
Here are Arthur Koestlers brilliant words about fanatics/socialists:
"- The continuous disasters of man's history are mainly due to his excessive capacity and urge to become identified with a tribe, nation, church or cause, and to espouse its credo uncritically and enthusiastically, even if its tenets are contrary to reason, devoid of self-interest and detrimental to the claims of self-preservation. We are thus driven to the unfashionable conclusion that the trouble with our species is not an excess of aggression, but an excess capacity for fanatical devotion. -"
Thus the historical record confronts us with the paradox that the tragedy of man originates not in an excess of individual self-assertiveness, ['immorality'] - but in a malfunction of the group tendencies of our species; - "an excess capacity for fanatical devotion."
Our superiority to these men and systems is not in our reasoning capability, but something that transcends reason.
Our superiority to these men and systems is indeed in our reasoning capability, - our ability to transcend 'devotion to a cause', - and instead live and let live, according to our self-evident golden rule - and our Constitution.
Long reply, and my thanks for it. But it confuses my point immensely. My fault no doubt.
Well. So let’s illustrate the conundrum of basing morality solely upon reason.
Why (reason needed here) is “doing unto others as we would...” better than - of greater value - than not?