and remind me again just HOW this miasma of eschatological details has the slightest bit of relevance to whether or not the 1st century Gentile converts have to become Jewish in form and substance to be Christian?
and remind me again just HOW this miasma of eschatological details has the slightest bit of relevance to whether or not the 1st century Gentile converts have to become Jewish in form and substance to be Christian?
Because as we see in Acts 15:17 as well as Amos there are two groups of people mentioned: "the residue of men" and "the Gentiles who are called by his name". If they had already become ONE, then why are they still TWO.