Unless something has changed since the last time I posted on this to you, they still occur after.
Has this above all been fulfilled yet?
Jeremiah and Ezekiel certainly thought so. So did James.
However, I have learned from talking with people sometimes that we should expect a retort of "well, kinda... but the REAL fulfillment is ...." and we are off to a land of charts. The problem is that THE TEXT SAYS that this (the Acts 15 events of the Gentiles coming to faith) is the fulfillment of the passage in Amos 9:11ff.
The rest of your post deals with other pericopes of scripture, which I would happily discuss with you at another time.
Back to the original point. You pointed that Acts 15 was a lynchpin in support of the dispensations. My contention is that it is NOT, but is rather a refutation of the very guts of the dispensational hermeneutic, as we have a clear and unambiguous statement by the Holy Spirit through the mouth of James that there is a SPIRITUAL fulfillment of a literal promise. This is, again, the clear and common sense reading of the passage, and that is why before the rise of Darbyism that ALL the earlier church fathers (reformed, and non-reformed, as I mentioned John Wesley earlier, but left out the Catholic fathers, as I didn't figure you would put much stock in their writings) viewed it as a simple figurative (or "allegorical" if you prefer) fulfillment of the prophecy. So do I. So did the whole church before some Irvingite charismatic milkmaid helped the whole church to see that their hermeneutic in interpreting OT prophecy had been wrong for 1800 years.
James says “After this I will return ...”. When did Jesus return????