[Diego1618]

Diego, the NT word translated "tribe" is the Greek "phule" #5443 in Strong's Concordance.

You are absolutely correct. Phule is the word translated "tribe" in the Greek in all cases.

Nowhere in any translation that I am aware of is "ethnos" in that verse or any other translated as "tribes". For example Mt 24:9 reads "and ye shall be hated of all nations [ethnos] for my names sake."

Well...you may be right here also....but we cannot be certain as Matthew was written in the Hebrew....and no original exists. It was later translated into the Greek.

The one thing we can be sure of is that "ETHNOS" also means tribes in the Greek.....and why it was translated "ETHNOS" instead of "PHULE" remains a question.

[Mad Dawg]

Well...you may be right here also....but we cannot be certain as Matthew was written in the Hebrew....and no original exists. It was later translated into the Greek.
Hebrew or Aramaic? And may I see your source for your answer, please?

The one thing we can be sure of is that "ETHNOS" also means tribes in the Greek
HOW may we be sure of that? As far as I can see the one thing we CAN be sure of is that tribe is by no means other than context the "preferred" translation and in fact in the KJV ethnos is not translated as tribe even once according to Young's Analytical.

......and why it was translated "ETHNOS" instead of "PHULE" remains a question.

Could you please rephrase? What is the antecedent of "it"? Are you saying we can know what the original Aramaic or Hebrew Text of Matthew was?