[MarkBsnr]

It was John's Book of Revelation that led later writers to associate the word "Babylon" with "the city of seven hills", and that didn't begin to circulate until 100 AD. Peter was writing to Jews in 67 AD, and the Jews knew where Babylon was --- it was on the Euphrates.

Circulate? When was it written? How do you know that Revelation is the first instance of this code name? And how do you know that Peter didn't already use it? Christians were largely underground at the time; they would have needed to misdirect any Roman inquisitors away from overt criticism of the Empire.

[Uncle Chip]

Circulate? When was it written? How do you know that Revelation is the first instance of this code name?

Because those who use it have obviously read John's book and are using his terminology.

And how do you know that Peter didn't already use it? Christians were largely underground at the time; they would have needed to misdirect any Roman inquisitors away from overt criticism of the Empire.

How come Paul does not use this code name for Rome for his writings from and to Rome? And what about Luke and the others? How come they didn't use that code name?

Peter was a straight-forward apostle who would and did speak his mind and told things just as they were --- without fear and deception.

If you assume that it was a code name, then where is the decoding book? How about "Mark" --- maybe that is a code word for someone else. And "Peace" might be a code word too.

What other words in the NT letters were code words that didn't mean what they said?