Replies

To: adiaireton8; Kolokotronis; kosta50

"That's what the Hebrew says as well. "He [masculine] will bruise you on the head . . . "

Then who does "he" as in "he will bruise..." refer to?

708 posted on 12/07/2006 8:21:34 PM PST by blue-duncan

To: blue-duncan; Kolokotronis

The LXX says "you" not "he."

709 posted on 12/07/2006 8:44:11 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)

To: blue-duncan; kosta50

It is my understanding that the "he" (of Gen 3:15) refers to Christ. But we have to remember that the word "seed" [zara`] in Hebrew has multiple senses. It can mean semen, and it can mean offspring (i.e. descendents). In Gen 3:15, it is referring to offspring. In post #532, when kosta50 says "there was no seed", I think he means that there was no semen present when Mary conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit. The phrase "If a woman have conceived seed" is a misleading translation of Lev 12:1. It means "When a woman produces seed [i.e. offspring] and bears [begets, brings forth] a child ..."

-A8

718 posted on 12/07/2006 9:23:43 PM PST by adiaireton8 ("There is no greater evil one can suffer than to hate reasonable discourse." - Plato, Phaedo 89d)

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