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To: xzins
In short, if Elizabeth's sullambano gets to mean lust, then so does Mary's. I don't think you want to go there

Jut a another one of those finer points of the Bible, isn't it? I didn't make up the meaning. Nor did I choose the words. But sullambano sullamabnw means "to seize, take, to conceive, of lust, etc."

Now, we know that Elizabeth did indeed conceive in a natural carnal act with her husband, but we also know that Mary did not (there was no "seed" and no "husband: and no carnal relationship, or violation of her virginity). Unless you favor the Mormon theology.

So, it is an enigma why +Luke uses the same word, when we are certain that the two women became pregnant in very different and mutually exclusive ways, isn't it?

648 posted on 12/07/2006 4:23:09 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50; annalex; xzins; blue-duncan; P-Marlowe; Dr. Eckleburg; BibChr; Calvinist_Dark_Lord; ...
It isn't an enigma why he used the same word for me. It's only an enigma if you have to impose a doctrine upon the text. Otherwise, you just take it literally and go with it.

Guess that makes me anathema.

658 posted on 12/07/2006 5:38:05 PM PST by xzins (Retired Army Chaplain and proud of it! Supporting our troops means praying for them to WIN!)
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