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To: blue-duncan
John's baptism was a baptism of repentance. Why then was Jesus baptized?

(If you can answer that question, then you can know why it was fitting for Mary to keep the days of purification required by the Law of Moses.)

-A8

286 posted on 12/05/2006 8:22:56 PM PST by adiaireton8 ("There is no greater evil one can suffer than to hate reasonable discourse." - Plato, Phaedo 89d)
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To: adiaireton8

Jesus was sinless and did not need the baptism of repentance but submitted to baptism out of obedience to the law. Mary was impure due to the blood of birth and needed the purification rite physically and spiritually. The two obediences are not the same.


310 posted on 12/06/2006 5:39:37 AM PST by blue-duncan
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