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To: bornacatholic; 1000 silverlings
You think when Jesus spoke directly to His Daughter He was propheysing?

Hmmmm...I've been reading your exchange with 1000 and I was at first a bit skeptical and then intrigued. I will say that I have always thought this to be a cultural thing, with Christ referring to them in some type of cultural environment; much like 1000 believes. However, upon closer inspection I'm not so sure.

While I don't believe Christ was these people physical father, I think He might have been referring to them in a spiritual sense. To each of the person He refers to as "Daughter" and (yes) "Son" (Mar 2:5), it is because He preface it with "Daughter, your faith has..." or "Son, thy sins be forgiven thee". I believe what you have stumbled on to was several examples of where Christ was personally acknowledging these people as Sons and Daughters of the kingdom of God. Consequently, they were His Sons and Daughters; Children of Abraham made righteous through faith. There are no examples that I can find where Christ calls a non-believer a "Son" or "Daughter".

Sola scriptura once again prevails.

2,611 posted on 12/21/2006 8:06:48 AM PST by HarleyD ("You in Your mercy have led forth the people which You have redeemed." Ex 15:13)
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To: HarleyD; The_Reader_David

Ping to the above.


2,612 posted on 12/21/2006 8:07:43 AM PST by HarleyD ("You in Your mercy have led forth the people which You have redeemed." Ex 15:13)
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To: HarleyD
I agree with your analysis. They are Sons and Daughters of God and His children. They are also Israel. The lesson taught is all of Israel is unclean and all who approach the Lord are unclean. Just touching His garments will heal you.
2,620 posted on 12/21/2006 9:25:54 AM PST by 1000 silverlings (stand up, stand up for Jesus, ye soldiers of the Cross)
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To: HarleyD; Dr. Eckleburg; bornacatholic
Sola scriptura once again prevails

It does. Someone who doesn't know the older scriptures will never understand the new. Jesus' actions and words are all based on the tenet "It is written" and everything He does and says has its base in the Old Testament.

2,621 posted on 12/21/2006 9:37:10 AM PST by 1000 silverlings (stand up, stand up for Jesus, ye soldiers of the Cross)
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To: HarleyD
Not really. On this very thread we have had sola scripturists tell us Jesus gave His Mom to John because His brothers and sisters did not believe in Him or have Faith in Him. Scripture gives us hints as to her age - the age of her menstruating, for example.

He was, in this case, reacting to His Daughter publicly exhibiting Faith whereas His brothers and sisters did not believe in Him.

Of course, one can only speculate that He was secretly married to Magdalene...

BTW, Harley, you are a blast to dialogue with because you are smart and love Scripture.

However, your explanation is only one of many possible ones and it spiritualises away the actual words of Jesus.

Obviously, He had children

2,626 posted on 12/21/2006 10:02:12 AM PST by bornacatholic
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