"Technically" she was only the "mother of our Lord" in the sense that she bore the Messiah. Mary was in much of a need of a Savior as anyone else (Luk 1:47). Contrary to Catholic doctrine, she was not unstained from sin. ALL have sinned and fallen short of God.
Thanks for your reply. Am I correct in reading: Mary was 'only the mother of our Lord' as she is not the mother of God Incarnate? Would it be correct to say you are differentiating between giving birth to Christ and giving birth to True God, God Incarnate - and that Mary is more aptly the "Mother of Christ"?
Is this an accurate stating of your view?