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To: blue-duncan; Dr. Eckleburg; wmfights; HarleyD; Forest Keeper; Quix; P-Marlowe
Dr. Malcolm Yarnell

there really any believers who would dare say that the Bible is insufficient for missions and evangelism

Yes. Of course it is not sufficient, especially if one reads "water" and thinks "womb", or reads "body" and thinks "symbol". Nor does the scripture itself say it is sufficient.

St. Paul's method was personal instruction, when unavaliable in person, he sent someone else or wrote a letter, to which indispensable to every pastor notes about articles of clothes Paul left behind and jokes about failing eyesight were attached. The New Testament was not written yet; at any even he is not mentioning it, and the Old Testament he directly contradicts,. That is supposed to be Sola Scriptura? This "white paper" is laughable.

13,160 posted on 04/20/2007 5:23:28 PM PDT by annalex
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To: annalex; Dr. Eckleburg; wmfights; HarleyD; Forest Keeper; Quix; P-Marlowe

“Nor does the scripture itself say it is sufficient.”

Of course it does. 2 Tim. 3:16, “All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.”

2 Tim. 2:15, “Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.”

Heb. 4:12-13, “For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart. Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: but all things are naked and opened unto the eyes of him with whom we have to do.”

Nowhere does the scriptures give that status to tradition or to the church. Ps. 138:2, “I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.”


13,210 posted on 04/21/2007 8:30:49 AM PDT by blue-duncan
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To: annalex
Yes. Of course it is not sufficient, especially if one reads "water" and thinks "womb", or reads "body" and thinks "symbol". Nor does the scripture itself say it is sufficient.

This from someone who thinks that John 'represents' the church and thus, Mary is the 'mother' of the church! (LOL!)

The context of Jn.3:4-8 is so clear that even a Roman Catholic could understand it, if they chose to do so.

Nowhere in that passage is baptism referred to.

The word womb is brought up by Nicodemus and Christ states that a man must be born of water (womb)(1st birth) and the Spirit to be born again

Born once-die twice,

Born twice, die once.

As for the Scripture being sufficent, it states that very clearly in 2Tim.3:17

that the man of God may be perfect, thoughly furnished until all good works.

13,645 posted on 04/27/2007 5:08:49 AM PDT by fortheDeclaration (For what saith the scripture? (Rom.4:3))
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