Is the Hebrew text believed to be the copies from the original (written by the authors) passed down through the ages?
If I understand your question: I hope so.
My question with regard to Origen's Hexapla is his Hebrew text in his first column. Where did he get it. The fact that there is only one Hebrew text and five Greek texts would indicate that Origen had what he believed to be the accurate Hebrew text in his possession and was trying to create an accurate Greek text to match it --- which means that he saw the Hebrew text in his possession as authoritative, and all the Greek texts in his possession as inferior.