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To: kosta50; blue-duncan; jo kus
Just the fact that we have no originals of any of the books of the Bible leaves the possibility that each and every one of them is flawed too.

The Septuagint has a lot of variations….there was an agenda to fulfill by altering the texts….But one thing is clearly lacking from the Septuagint: an agenda.

It is clear from the way you write that you don't know the subject. The Greeks never translated the Hebrew Bible into Greek.

They were all Hebrew text and they did not contain the same canon (for the nth time).

If your article has any credibility, which it doesn't, it would observe that if the canon was set the rabbis would have had NO reason to 're-set' it at Jamnia.


10,699 posted on 02/16/2007 9:30:16 AM PST by HarleyD
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To: HarleyD

our old testament matches the copies dated to 2 bc in qumran

yours dates to the 8th century and after being modified by Jews it had vowles added to futher confuse nuances in the language.

i'll take the original thanks.


10,702 posted on 02/16/2007 10:56:14 AM PST by kawaii (Orthodox Christianity -- Proclaiming the Truth Since 33 A.D.)
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To: HarleyD

http://www.lxx.org/

Anything else you'd care to lie about?


10,703 posted on 02/16/2007 10:58:15 AM PST by kawaii (Orthodox Christianity -- Proclaiming the Truth Since 33 A.D.)
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To: HarleyD

you know full well from links i've sent you in the past that the orthodox are translating the septuagint into english and that they've translated it into several other languages.

your statement that the orthodox have no translations of scripture is false which leads one to question whether other statements within your post are equally false.

(BTW when Cyril and Methodius translated the bible into local languages GERMANS ARRESTED THEM AGAINST THE WISHES OF THE POPE for translating the Bible into local language)


10,708 posted on 02/16/2007 11:15:24 AM PST by kawaii (Orthodox Christianity -- Proclaiming the Truth Since 33 A.D.)
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To: HarleyD; blue-duncan; jo kus
Okay, HD, I will answer you one more time and that's it. You can have the last word; my pay is the same.

Do you need to have the original? Would that help your faith? If the original Hebrew manuscripts were here in front of you, missing the vowels, would that help?

Yes I would very much like to have the original of every book of the Bible. No it wouldn't help my faith. I have faith, just not the pre-fabricated type most others do.

There is sufficient reason to believe that what we have today accurately reflect the things God wishes to communicate with us

Scriptures are full of human redactions and erros. It may be 'sufficient reason' for you.

These things were handed down to us by the Jews and our church fathers

So, now you base your faith on men?

Well, if this isn’t confusing.

Wrong. I mentioned Sinaiticus and Vaticanus and Alexandrinus; these are complete Bibles (OT and NT), the oldest ones we have. The Alandrinus (5th century AD) has a lot of additional text that makes it more "Christian" in both the OT and the NT. The original Septuagint had no Christian bias; Christ wasn't around yet.

It's confusing only if you don't know the subject but rely on Google wisdom.

Kosta [Septuagint, the Essene Hebrew text, the Sadducee Bible and the Pharisaical Hebrew text] were all Hebrew text and they did not contain the same canon (for the nth time)

HD Wrong. They were NOT the same canon...

Thank you, you actually agreed with me. :)

They were different Septuagints

No they were not. Go back and Google some more.

I’m not sure who translated the Hebrew Bible into Greek

That's obvious top anyone who knows even the basics about the Septuagint.

All I can say is that it was someone who knew Greek and it must have been intended for someone who read Greek (and they had an agenda)

They were Hebrews (Jews) who lived in Alexandria 200 years BEFORE Christ. They spoke Greek the way sapnish Jews speak Spanish. It doesn't make them 'less' Jewish.

They had no agenda. The rabbis in Jamnia did. The various Christian scribes who aletered the Vaticanus and Sinaiticus did. The onyl agenda the Alexandrian Jews has in 3rd century BC was to have a Bible (OT) they can read in their language.

You would also not have made the above comment because the Masoretes confirmed the Christians were using the same text as the Jews

Which Christians? The Orthodox Church NEVER used the Masoretic Text. Your Masorets are rabbinical Jews, former Pharisees, who represent only one of several Jewish sects at the time of Jesus, and their canon did nbot agree with the canon of other equally Jewish sects. They are the only surviving sect so their canon became 'the" Hebrew canon to those who are confused.

There was no disagreement in scripture between the two groups; only theological

Yes there is. The Apostles used the septuagint. The early Church used the Septuagint, The Orthodox Church uses the Septuagint. Only the Protestants use the Masoretic Text.

10,732 posted on 02/16/2007 4:20:01 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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