[bornacatholic]

Maybe Jesus spoke those words (repeatedly? Where does the Bible say that?) because He had emptied Himself of His Divinity to experinence in His human nature the consequence of sin.

[fish hawk]

Go argue with Dr. R.B. Thieme, not me. He pointed out that the verb used in the imperfect tense indicated this. If you read his bio you will find that he is an expert in Hebrew and Greek. The Bible was written in those languages, no? Of course your local Padre knows better than the biblical scholars.