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To: wmfights

The scholarship both of you have provided has been terrific. So based on a misinterpretation of Matthew 16: 17-19 the church in Rome began claiming Peter founded it so they could claim "special" authority. IOW, that their Bishop was the "top" Bishop. When did Rome begin to assert this position? If for example it was after the persecutions in the early 300's I can see how they might be able to, since 240 years had passed.

= = =

INDEED. And

it was a POLITICAL COUP. It was a political action. It was a political achievement.

There was no angelic hosts affirming it. There were no angelic armies enforcing it. It was human start to finish, top to bottom, inside and out.

Basically, it was standard arrogant power mongering gone to RELIGIOUS seed.


1,721 posted on 10/27/2006 1:03:16 PM PDT by Quix (LET GOD ARISE AND HIS ENEMIES BE SCATTERED. LET ISRAEL CALL ON GOD AS THEIRS! & ISLAM FLUSH ITSELF)
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To: Quix
"it was a POLITICAL COUP. It was a political action. It was a political achievement."
____________________________

If that's true it had to be around the time of the Council of Nicene. Constantine convened the council in 325 AD, that's about 255 years after Peter was supposed to have been the Bishop of Rome. Now if the Roman church had the backing of Constantine I doubt anyone would argue with them. All they would have to do is see what happened to the Arians. It certainly is possible that along with burning all copies of Thalia (Arius' teachings) other documents were destroyed as well.
1,733 posted on 10/27/2006 1:31:54 PM PDT by wmfights (Psalm : 27)
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