[tenn2005]

As usual, you dodge the question by setting up a straw man.

[Rutles4Ever]

It's not a strawman. Your point has absolutely zero basis in fact, theory, hallucination, whatever. Like most fundamentalists, you cherry-pick what verses of scripture conform to your interpretation, then fail to apply the same logic to the rest of Scripture.

In what context is Jesus only talking to the Apostles with regard to Apostolic authority, but NOT talking only to the Jews and Gentiles of Galilee when He gives the Sermon on the Mount? Please provide a cogent response.