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To: jo kus; Dionysiusdecordealcis; HarleyD; Gamecock; P-Marlowe; blue-duncan; Dahlseide; ...
For example "Adam's sin is transmitted to his prosterity, not by imitation, but by descent" (De fide)

That's as clear as mud. Who gets to interpret that?

"Human will remains free under the influence of efficiacious grace, which is not irresistible" (De fide)

Again that is clear as mud. If efficacious grace is not irresistible, then why is it efficacious? The only way it becomes efficacious is if you don't resist it. Hence efficacious grace is, by definition, that grace which a man cannot resist.

"Souls who depart this life in the state of original sin are excluded from the Beatific Vision of God" (De fide)

What is that supposed to mean? Beatific Vision of God? Is heaven a mirage?

So the church has the exclusive ability to interpret scripture, but who has the authority to interpret the interpretations of the Church? You?

666 posted on 01/08/2006 9:47:02 AM PST by P-Marlowe
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To: P-Marlowe

You just posted that so you could get the #666. :O)


667 posted on 01/08/2006 10:06:00 AM PST by HarleyD ("Command what you will and give what you command." - Augustine's Prayer)
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To: P-Marlowe
Who gets to interpret that?

The Divinely instituted teaching authority, the Church.

So the church has the exclusive ability to interpret scripture, but who has the authority to interpret the interpretations of the Church? You?

Of course you can interpret Scripture for yourself. However, we, as the Church, are to do it through the lenses of what we have been taught by the Church already. We don't reinvent the wheel or deny what has been taught as dogma before. If you question my interpretations of the Catechism, you are more than welcome. But please provide me with a counter point of view with appropriate citations from a Council or Papal declaration, rather than your broad accusation.

Regards

673 posted on 01/08/2006 2:53:46 PM PST by jo kus
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