"It is inconceivable that Mary would have carnal relations, or desires after having carried the precious and sacred Child."
Why is that so inconceivable when Paul tells us in 1 Cor. 3:16 that we are the temple of God and that the Spirit of God dwells in us and we still sin? Aren't they co-equal in the Godhead? Does one deserve more veneration than the other?
We are sin? After our regeneration? What exactly was "regenerated" if we are still "sin"? Here is the heart of Luther's error.
Regards
It is inconceivable because Mary already had the joy of full union with God which is merely foreshadowed in the joy of an ordinary spousal union. It would not have been sinful, perhaps and legalistically speaking, for her to carnally enjoy the marital union with Joseph, merely absurd. Quoting myself:
Mary had arrived to the unitive and procreative marriage to the Holy Ghost abundantly. Sinless, she was united to Him at all times. Her body gave birth to the perfect new man. She was walking in paradise all her life. The hormonal urgings a lesser woman goes by had no purpose in her; if she had them they were not significant and probably not noticeable to her enlightened mind.
Matthew 1:24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
. I suppose we will have to give an esoteric meaning now to Matthew 1:25