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To: HarleyD
The reason two versions of the same Bible uses two different words is due to the nature of Greek syntax. The Greek tacks the verb onto the end of a word and it isn't always precise.

Thanks Harley, I didn't know that.

4,085 posted on 03/27/2006 7:35:20 AM PST by Forest Keeper
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To: Forest Keeper; HarleyD

"The reason two versions of the same Bible uses two different words is due to the nature of Greek syntax. The Greek tacks the verb onto the end of a word and it isn't always precise.

Thanks Harley, I didn't know that."

Greek does NOT tack verbs onto the end of words; never has. By the way, Greek is extraordinarily precise and complex compared to most any modern language (especially English and the Romance languages) or even Latin for that matter, guys.


4,089 posted on 03/27/2006 9:53:10 AM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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