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To: kosta50; annalex; Kolokotronis; Agrarian; HarleyD; Dr. Eckleburg; jo kus
FK: "I can't think of anyone on my side [i.e. Protestant, Calvinist] who has ever argued here that God causes evil, and I don't think I have heard from anyone that God actively sends people to hell.

I think Isa 45:7 says it clearly enough: "I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things."

Is that a quote from your Bible, Kosta? I'll have to remember the Orthodox translation. :)

Speaking only for myself, and at my level of development, I do not equate bad things that happen NECESSARILY with evil. God caused the flood, which was a disaster (the word my Bible uses). Was this evil, even though all on earth, save 8, died? I would say 'No'. It was righteous by definition, BECAUSE God did it. In my view, evil results from satan's rejection of God, and evil results from man's rejection of God. If that is right, then evil can have nothing to do with God, in my opinion.

3,940 posted on 03/22/2006 3:47:36 PM PST by Forest Keeper
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To: Forest Keeper; annalex; Kolokotronis; Agrarian; HarleyD; jo kus
I think Isa 45:7 says it clearly enough: "I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things."

Is that a quote from your Bible, Kosta? I'll have to remember the Orthodox translation

The quote was from KJV. My OT Bible (LXX, Septuagint) says this:

"I am he that prepared light, and formed darkness; who make peace, and create evil; I am the Lord God, that does all these things." [Esaias 45:7]

The Greek word used is derived from Greek kakos, meaning "of bad nature" or "wicked." In the Hebrew version the word ra` is used meaning "bad" or "evil."

Speaking only for myself, and at my level of development, I do not equate bad things that happen NECESSARILY with evil. God caused the flood, which was a disaster (the word my Bible uses). Was this evil...? I would say 'No'. It was righteous by definition, BECAUSE God did it

I agree, without going into this. But, you bring up another interesting point: if the Bible is inerrant (i.e. if there are no errors due to translation or misconception or miscopying, etc.) how could two versions of the same Bible use two different words that mean similar but not identical concepts?

The Jewish idea of righteousness and even sin is not the same as ours (Christian), and their interpretation of the same books that we call the Old Testament are like night and day. They have no concept of salvation; they don't understand why it would be necessary!

Since we are no this subject, maybe you can explain how come 2 Kings 8:26 says Ahaziah was 22 years old and 2 Chron 22:2 says he was 42 when he became king? Or maybe you can explain how come 2 Sam 6:23 says Michal had no children and 2 Sam 21:8 says she had five!, or 1 King 4;26 says Solomon had forty thousand stalls, and 2 chronicles says he had four thousand? And Septuagint says he had forty thousand brood mares!

3,951 posted on 03/22/2006 9:32:21 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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