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To: Forest Keeper

The Hebrew Canon is, I believe, the Jewish Torah, and it roughly corresponds to the Old Testament canon, with the differences that I outlined: the seven books, some passages, and differences of translation.

The differences between the Protestant Old Testament and the canon defined by Carthage and affirmed by Trent are likewise differences of the seven books, a few passages and translation. I don't think the differences between the Protestant canon and the Hebrew canon are substantial, but I am no expert. Here is one: Isaiah 7:14 is traditionally translated as "behold a virgin shall give bith" but the Hebrew word used only means young woman, "almah". To specifically designate a virgin, the Hebrew author is more likely to use "beulah". But Septuagint has it "parthenos", which is clearly "virgin". So, one translating or teaching from Septuagint, like the early Church did, does not even see a difficulty, and arrives at the accepted Christian meaning. One translating from post-Jamnia, so called Masoretic Hebrew (which would be within the Protestant tradition) would have to extrapolate the Christian meaning if he is to translate it "virgin" at all. And a Jew would have no reason to reach for anything coming out of the Christian tradition and render it "maiden" or "young girl", as the primary meaning of "almah".


2,060 posted on 01/27/2006 7:07:52 PM PST by annalex
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To: annalex; Forest Keeper
I don't think the differences between the Protestant canon and the Hebrew canon are substantial, but I am no expert

Well, the differences are more than substantial, although not in the Five Books of Moses, save for the "virgin" issue. The oldest Masoretic (Rabbinical) Text dates to 10th century AD. The book was found in a Moscow synagogue. Jamnia, by the way, was a rabbinical meeting that anathemized Jesus of Nazareth and the out all the books used by Christian Jews. The meeting took place in 100 AD.

Some consider Jamina to be the date and place where the Hebrew Canon was finalized, but some will dispute that. The fact is that Hebrew canon was growing; by 500 BC only the Five Books of Mose constituted the "Bible." In the next 400 or so years, up to the birth of Christ, Prophets and Psalms were added, along with the seven books included in the Septuagint, which was a Jewish working Scripture written in Greek for the Alexandrian Hebrews who did not speak their ancient lanuage any more or Aramaic, but only Greek.

The Gospels quote from the Septuagint but the Protestants choose to ignore that fact. Catholics use a mixture of MT and Septuagint. The Orthodox Church retains the entire Septuaging as the source known as the "Old testament."

Catholic dogmas of Immaculate Conception, etc. can be traced to the "Apocryphal" books. But so can many other Orthodox and Catholic doctrines.

The Septuagint is the oldest complete Old Testament Scripture, dating back to third century BC, so it cannot be accused of being modified by the Christians.

2,063 posted on 01/27/2006 7:38:12 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: annalex; kosta50
Thank you both for your answers on OT history. This is very interesting.
2,132 posted on 01/30/2006 9:42:10 AM PST by Forest Keeper
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