Gentry lists F.F.Bruce as an advocate of an early writing (pre 70 A.D.) of Revelation. However in Bruce's introduction to the Gospel of John he states the following:
"But within John's general Hellenistic environment can we think of one particular category of reader that he might have in mind? Whom are the arguments deployed in the great debate of his central chapters designed to convince? These central chapters are largely devoted to one sustained debate between Jesus and the religious leaders in Jerusalem--a debate which was carried on in the following decades between the followers of Jesus and the synagogue authorities.
The destruction of the Jerusalem temple and the cessation of the sacrificial worship in AD 70 made little difference to Jewish life in the dispersion. The debate between the disciples and the synagogue authorities reached a critical stage around AD 90, when one of the prayers in the synagogue service was reworded so as effectively to exclude the followers of Jesus.45 It was probably against this background that the Fourth Gospel was published, in order to bring members of synagogue congregations in that area of the dispersion where the Evangelist and his associates lived (and in other areas too) to faith in Jesus as the Messiah of Israel, the Son of God, the Revealer of the Father.46 Among members of synagogue congregations those most likely to be impressed were perhaps Gentile God-fearers who regularly attended synagogue services (the record of Acts illustrates how this was so in Paul's mission-field a generation earlier)."
If Bruce is correct, it would seem that the destruction John writes about in Revelation was not the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple from 66-70 A.D. but some later cataclysmic event.
I'm not following. How do you conclude that from Bruce's comments?