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To: Miles the Slasher

I love the arguement that the Catholic Church is the authority on interpreting the Bible because the Catholic Church's interpretation says so. Circular logic.

It's curious that Mark 8 doesn't even talk about Peter being given the right to rule the earthly Church. The story is condensed into the important parts. Jesus is the Christ and don't tell anyone.

Mark 8
29 And he asked them, "But who do you say that I am?" Peter answered him, "You are the Christ."
30 And he strictly charged them to tell no one about him.

Same with Luke 9:20-21, no mention of Peter's authority.

Then Acts 10
25 When Peter entered, Cornelius met him and fell down at his feet and worshiped him.
26 But Peter lifted him up, saying, "Stand up; I too am a man."

And later in Acts 10:34-43, when Peter proclaims the Good News, there is nothing about Peter being the first Pope.

In 2 Peter 1:1, Peter uses the phrase, "To those who have obtained a faith of equal standing with ours by the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ"

Regarding the authority of the Catholic Church and the Pope... I just don't see it. One of the greatest truths of the Bible should not be obscured using innuendo and inference

I am saved by grace, though faith, for works. That's what the Bible says. It is quite clear on these points.

So in summary, I will not unite under the Catholic Church.


33 posted on 04/11/2005 1:59:48 PM PDT by Tao Yin
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To: Tao Yin

"I love the arguement that the Catholic Church is the authority on interpreting the Bible because the Catholic Church's interpretation says so. Circular logic."

I suppose such an argument would be circular, if the Catholic Church in fact made that argument. However, it doesn't. The Church, as a living body, derives's its authority directly from Christ. The Church preceded the New Testament books, its members wrote the scripture under inspiration. I believe the scriptures are scripture on the Church's authority. No cirularity there.

However, if you believe in sola scriptura, do you have a noncircular proof of it, that doesn't first presume the scriptures authority?

A private reply would be fine, not looking for a theological debate on FR.


37 posted on 04/11/2005 6:04:40 PM PDT by Miles the Slasher
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