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To: TotusTuus
The short answer is that there is no real conflict between East and West on this issue, other than apparent ones due to misunderstandings in the meaning of words coming from two different languages (Latin and Greek). I say this as a Ruthenian Byzantine Catholic.

I saw this comment of yours on this thread, and was wondering if you can elaborate. I think, the dual procession of the Holy Ghost is a real difference, as much as I would like this not to be the case.

49 posted on 04/11/2005 2:22:39 PM PDT by annalex
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To: annalex
I'll find time to get back to this. But really, the "difference" would be solved in some of the above formulae given above about "the Spirit proceeds from the Father through the Son". It is in this sense that the Latin Creed put in the filioque ("que" tacked onto the end of the last of a grouping of words that "belong" together in Latin is one way of indicating "and". In English it would be "peanutbutter jellyque";).

This can be deduced from Scripture. The Eastern Church has never really paid historical attention to the fact that the "filioque" was added to combat a heresy that the Western Church was having some troubles with. It had little or nothing to do about trying to redefine an Ecumenical Council, only to clarify the teaching.

I've just pissed off a bunch of the Orthodox;)

53 posted on 04/11/2005 10:26:51 PM PDT by TotusTuus (Christos Voskrese!)
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