[Slacker2Saint]

How come in the Hebrew 'Messiah' have various options, but in the Greek all other options disappear? Isn't that kind of leading the reading to an end result that isn't really there?

I believe the answer is that the Greek syntax and vocabulary were more complex than the Hebrew, so in Hebrew the same word could be a noun, verb or adverb depending upon the usage, whereas Greek would have had several different words using the same root "chri-." For instance, "Christos" means "one who is annointed", "chrisma" is "ointment, and "chriein" is "to annoint."

[ET(end tyranny)]

Since we know from sripture that there were many 'anointed' people, some were priests, kings and or saints, it would seem that the Hebrew is the more accurate and not so mis-leading.