To: jwalsh07
Being immaculate and ever-virgin, according to Catholic doctrine, what need has she of grace?//Your argument is with the Archangel Gabriel. I didn't declare Mary full of grace, Gabriel did. Perhaps you should address your question to Gabriel?
Gabriel has refuted you. Again I say, "Being immaculate and ever-virgin, according to Catholic doctrine, what need has she of grace?"
283 posted on
02/21/2004 10:27:10 PM PST by
Leonine
To: Leonine
The grace Mary received was before her natural conception. She was going to need the grace, because she was going to be a human. God knew that all the humans were going to need grace, His grace, to be able to be near Him. He knew this ahead of time and so He gave Mary His grace before she was naturally conceived.
Gabriel has not refuted that. He said to Mary, in Luke 1:28, "Hail, favored one! The Lord is with you." Present tense. Mary had the fullness of grace according to Gabriel, God's messenger.
289 posted on
02/21/2004 10:42:25 PM PST by
Ohioan from Florida
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