Actually, it doesn't, because the Preamble has ZERO legal value. And Judge Moore knows this.
One cannot uphold an interpretation of the Constitution that is contradicted by the preamble.
Nonetheless, the grammar remains.
You may say it isn't binding, but that says ABSOLUTELY NOTHING about whether those words were correctly translated by Moore. They are.
The preamble clearly recognizes "Almighty God" as the authority to which they appeal for guidance.
The preamble to any law, including the constitutions of the US and the States, sets forth the stated purpose of the law and when interpreting that law the judges MUST interpret the law in the light of that stated purpose. To fail to do so is to violate their oath.