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To: xzins; sinkspur; hchutch
Moore says his constitution REQUIRES him to recognize the authority of God.

Actually, it doesn't, because the Preamble has ZERO legal value. And Judge Moore knows this.

188 posted on 08/29/2003 9:06:45 PM PDT by Poohbah (Crush your enemies, see them driven before you, and hear the lamentations of their women.)
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To: Poohbah
In that the Preamble does not spell out a "process" that must be followed, you have a point. However, in that the preamble establishes the purpose, direction, and organization of a Constitution, then you are wrong.

One cannot uphold an interpretation of the Constitution that is contradicted by the preamble.

Nonetheless, the grammar remains.

You may say it isn't binding, but that says ABSOLUTELY NOTHING about whether those words were correctly translated by Moore. They are.

The preamble clearly recognizes "Almighty God" as the authority to which they appeal for guidance.

189 posted on 08/29/2003 9:11:08 PM PDT by xzins (In the Beginning was the Word)
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To: Poohbah; xzins
Actually, it doesn't, because the Preamble has ZERO legal value.

The preamble to any law, including the constitutions of the US and the States, sets forth the stated purpose of the law and when interpreting that law the judges MUST interpret the law in the light of that stated purpose. To fail to do so is to violate their oath.

190 posted on 08/29/2003 9:14:16 PM PDT by P-Marlowe (Milquetoast Q. Whitebread is alive!)
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