To: Poohbah; xzins
Actually, it doesn't, because the Preamble has ZERO legal value. The preamble to any law, including the constitutions of the US and the States, sets forth the stated purpose of the law and when interpreting that law the judges MUST interpret the law in the light of that stated purpose. To fail to do so is to violate their oath.
190 posted on
08/29/2003 9:14:16 PM PDT by
P-Marlowe
(Milquetoast Q. Whitebread is alive!)
To: P-Marlowe
The preamble to any law, including the constitutions of the US and the States, sets forth the stated purpose of the law and when interpreting that law the judges MUST interpret the law in the light of that stated purpose. To fail to do so is to violate their oath.Sorry, kiddo. Preambles != enforceable; the principle goes back to English common law, which is where we get our own common law.
195 posted on
08/29/2003 9:18:59 PM PDT by
Poohbah
(Crush your enemies, see them driven before you, and hear the lamentations of their women.)
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