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I'll do the math here.

My source is:

http://www.ama-assn.org/special/womh/library/scan/vol_3/no_17/aje.htm

The Journal of American Medicine Association (JAMA) is the premeir trade journal of the entire medical world. Their standards are very strict, and not many people get published there, but many try. Multiple peer review by statisticians, and leading physicians in their field in the world. It is considered Gospel in the medical world.

That said, the article summary I linked says that the heterosexual transmission rate of HIV from women to men is .0009 x .125 (one eigth), or roughly 1 in 10,000 tries. For the average HIV infected woman to infect 200 men, she would have to have sex 2,000,000 times. Yes, TWO MILLION TIMES!!!

The article also says that other STD's (as in, gonorhea, etc.) are the largest indicator of transmission.

Bottom line: It is virtually impossible for an otherwise healthy (No other STD's) women to infect a man with HIV.

Don't like the numbers? Argue with JAMA; good luck, and have fun. I'm just the translator. :)

Heterosexual AIDS through sex is a myth.

JAMA 2000

http://www.ama-assn.org/special/hiv/library/scan/mar00/mar00g.htm

The rate of male-to-female transmission was not significantly different from the rate of female-to-male transmission (12.0 per 100 person-years vs. 11.6 per 100 person-years).

Conclusions: The viral load is the chief predictor of the risk of heterosexual transmission of HIV-1, and transmission is rare among persons with levels of less than 1500 copies/mL of HIV-1 RNA.

Bottom line: It is virtually impossible for an otherwise healthy (No other STD's) women to infect a man with HIV.

Any idea why the transmission rate through heterosexual sex is so much higher in Africa?