To: Southack
One, by definition, because x1 = x for any x, but what difference does that make?
283 posted on
02/16/2003 3:07:44 PM PST by
jejones
To: jejones
"One, by definition, because x1 = x for any x, but what difference does that make?"
Because that means ONE full order of magnitude greater, in Base 2, per my earlier post, not a .3 order of magnitude as made in your own claim...
284 posted on
02/16/2003 3:09:30 PM PST by
Southack
(Media bias means that Castro won't be punished for Cuban war crimes against Black Angolans in Africa)
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