I wonder how many brothas in the hood are being sued for the use of the "N" word these days. I'm sure these two women never heard any of them use it, aren't you.
I have yet to have it explained to me how, if the word is so damned offensive - which I will take at face value that it is - then how come the 'brothas' and 'sistas' can use it so freely? They use it on BET all the time. They punctuate their sentences with the bloody word. It is in a constant stream of casual use. And yet, as I post here I know that I dast not write that term down in the context of this post - even though it is completely germain to an intellegent discussion of the issue - for fear of being labelled nothing short of David Duke.
If it is a term that is seen to be so virulently offensive then how can it be for one group so blasé, while for others it is rabid racisim? Surely it offensive in all contexts. After all, if a German calls another German a Nazi, is it any less offensive that if, for example, a Turk calls a German a Nazi? I think both usages are equally rephrehensible**. I'm sorry, I just don't get the difference.
Surely there are lots of intellegent, conservative American's of African heritage reading and/or posting here that can explain this to me from their perspective? I really don't mean to be impertinent whatsoever, I just do not understand this and I'd love to.
(**Unless, of course he really is a Nazi! Then it is the person, and not the word, that is the offensive article.)