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To: Sentis; jennyp; gore3000; Condorman; Nebullis
I agree that we have a lot more to learn about what virii have done to the genome, but that also means it is not reasonable to attribute what many regard as God-like powers to them.

Let's approach this another way. I have gone with ya'lls numbers every step of the way to make it fit. I have not asked any of you to budge a bit even though gore3000 makes a good case that your numbers are suspect.

If we look at the total number amount of difference in the humane genome then maybe we can find the average human mutation rate REGARDLESS if it was caused by radiation, virii, or whatever. It then does not matter how the mutation occured- it takes virus and every other kind of mutation into account. We can then compare that to human-chimp differences and see how likely it is that they split.


Let me show you what I mean: I will not do your homework for you, as some have suggested, but I will do a sample problem for you. I will pretend like I am on your side, and generate some numbers that supports your case.....

A study by Doritz found eight base pair differences out of 397 studied from mtDNA from ethnic groups around the world. Using this study, we can calculate that there is about 2 percent variablity in this hyper-mutational region of mtDNA (8 /397= .02).

Does all of the human genome vary by this amount? IF the mutation rate of this region were applied to all CHROMOSOMAL DNA then a 42 million bpd divided by .02 equals an expected humane genome size of 2.1 billion base pairs. That number of base pairs and higher means that variablity in the human genome can account for it. As one goes lower than that number, the idea that natural factors alone are responsible goes down.

Compared to the actual count of 3 billion bp, you are well within the ballpark of saying the differences can happen as a result of naturalistic mechanisms.

OK, end of Darwins-advocate mode.

The only catch in the above is DOES TOTAL CHROMOSOMAL variability in humans equal or exceed that 2% figure I cited? NO. I don't know what the real difference is though. How much % wise do we all differ from one another in our total CHROMOSOMAL DNA? How do our 42 million (or 150 million using g3ks calculations) bpd's from chimps compare to the number of pbd we have from one another?

If we evolved, shouldn't that calculation give us the average chimp-human mutation rate? Conversely, if we are super-similar to one another compared to our differences with chimps, wouldn't that imply that WE DON'T mutate fast enough to explain the difference?

Do any of you have this information? I invite any of you to plug the real number (not the 2% figure I used, but the real abount of %bp difference in the human genome) into the process I have outlined above and let's see what the numbers show us. Any takers?

If not, does my brainstorm example lead you into any ideas as to how you could model mathematically the reasonableness of the man-chimp connection?
83 posted on 02/15/2003 12:36:28 PM PST by Ahban
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To: Ahban
How much % wise do we all differ from one another in our total CHROMOSOMAL DNA?

Isn't this identical to the point I made way back in post 45?

84 posted on 02/15/2003 12:46:00 PM PST by Condorman (Never send a monster to do the work of an evil scientist.)
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