I make neither assumption. I assume they were only giving approximate measurements. Biblical literalists can't make that assumption, however, so they have to rationalize it.
Why assume approximates over actual when either could be true ? I agree that they could be approximates but I disagree that that is the only possible assumption. In fact the more thought I give to the separate measurement for a rim the more that seems likely to me.
Although I am comfortable using both literal and metaphoric/allegoric interpretations in this case I don't see the same dilemma you see. And as a scientist I am surprised you could not entertain the two circle theory as being equally valid as the approximate theory.