Posted on 05/23/2002 8:52:25 AM PDT by stainlessbanner
Perhaps you are right. Now substitute the word "secession" for "slavery".
Northern states were not adhering to Article IV, Section 2, Clause 3 of the Constitution ("No Person held to Service or Labour in one State, under the Laws thereof, escaping into another, shall, in Consequence of any Law or Regulation therein, be discharged from such Service or Labour, but shall be delivered up on Claim of the Party to whom such Service or Labour may be due."). That is specifically mandated in the Constitution. How did they get around that?
But this is not true today and had already failed to be true well before 1860. It is precisely the fact of this failure of commonality that prompted the secession of the South - their desire to form a Confederacy where such a commonality did exist.
LOL! Thank you for that!
No, substitute the words "unilateral secession" for slavery. It's quite a different thing. In Article I and Article IV the Constitution lays out a number of actions that a state may not take unilaterally, either alone or in concert with other states, becuase they may affect the interests of other states. The Constitution also requires congressional approval for any changes affecting the status of a state. Whether splitting up, combining with another, or the slightest change in its borders, a state must get congressional approval. Given this, the implication is clear that any action affecting the status of a state, or action which may affect the interests of another state, cannot be done unilaterally. That's where the south violated the Constitution. Secession isn't necessarily a violation of the Constitution, unilateral secession is.
Actually, that was just one of the points that I tried to make to "varina davis", that even Lee knew the cause was wrong and only followed it because he could not bring himself to take up arms against his home state.
If you read the entire exchange between "varina davis" and I, you will see that it began with my dispute over a statement she made about in reference to a quote in the article. And while I attempted to argue from point of historical fact, she repeatedly side-stepped my arguments and questions and responded to me in an arrogant and condecending manner, implying that I simply wasn't "educated" enough to understand Southern concepts of "principle" and "honor". This brought me to Lee's defense when she essentially accused him (unwittlingly, of course) of being a liar with regard to a Lee quote regarding Grant which I used in making one of my arguments. When I boxed her into a corner she couldn't side-step, she falsely accused me of name-calling and of engaging in a "diatribe", before running home with her bag of marbles. The point of the final post speaks for itself.
I find your argument very weak (you probably think the same of mine). Nowhere in the Constitution do I read that secession (or even your made-up term 'unilateral secession') is prohibited to the states.
You didn't answer my other question concerning whether it was legitimate or not for the Northern states to ignore Article IV, Section 2, Clause 3.
As for your second question, of course it was not permissible for the Northern states, or any other state, to ignore Article IV. On the other hand, it was also not permissible for the slave catchers to act with impunity. Slavery was immoral but it was also legal. Run away slaves, if caught, legally had to be handed back to the state that they wanted in. But that state also had an obligation to follow local laws in pursuing the run-aways. They should have had to file for extradition and go through the courts.
So, Washington was already using the despicable ploy of accusing those who disagree with you of a lack of patriotism. The funny thing about you and Walt is, your abject worship of George Washington so blinds you that you don't hesitate to expose his less attractive features when you think you can thereby support an argument.
Since perpetuity is an imperfection in a freely entered union, a perpetual union made more perfect would not be perpetual.
That would mean that no marriage could last, wouldn't it?
But some do.
This doesn't seem like blazingly piercing analysis on your part.
Walt
Now what rights and powers have been delegated, and what has been prohibited? None, on both counts - it's just a statement that asserts that this contract takes legal precedence over others.
LOL - Supremacy. Spell check on aisle 13.
It would mean nothing of the sort. As usual your logic is fatally flawed. Perhaps your new screen name could be Fallacio.
I never suggested that you were monotheists. As for me, I follow the admonition of Horace: nil admirari.
In an attempt to enlighten you, although I would probably have more likelihood of success at bench-pressing an elephant, a marriage is not a perpetual compact, it ends with the lives of those who made the compact.
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