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To: Non-Sequitur
Let's don't mislead people, Non.

Since Jefferson Davis refused to free the slaves down south;Lincoln did not free the slaves in the North.

forced through legislation that suspended habeas corpus throughout the south; Davis legally and duly submitted it to a vote, Lincoln did not.

initiated conscription; So did Lincoln.

proposed income taxes at levels far above those up north; Lincoln's taxes were much higher, remember the tariffs?

and forcibly appropriated slave labor and agricultural goods for the war effort (something Lincoln never dreamed of...

His man, Sherman, did, and with Lincoln's permission.

74 posted on 12/16/2001 9:19:42 AM PST by WhowasGustavusFox
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To: WhowasGustavusFox
Do you got info on how Sherman did this? THanks!
84 posted on 12/16/2001 10:27:21 AM PST by rwfromkansas
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To: WhowasGustavusFox
Oh come on, Pea, when it comes to misleading people I have a lot to learn from you. I was just pointing out to my fellow Jayhawk rwfromkansas that the actions he condemned Lincoln for were duplicated by Davis. Neither freed the slaves in their own territories. Both suspended habeas corpus, and I'll add that Lincoln's actions in 1861 were never found unconstitutional regardless of what you say, and remain as legal as Davis' actions were. The south began conscription a year before the North and relied on conscripts for substantial part of their army. The Davis government proposed income taxes in excess of 25%, far in excess of anything Lincoln's administration imposed and well in excess of the percentage of tariffs paid for by the southerners prior to the war. As for you snide comments on Sherman, he seized food and supplies from civilians down south as Lee did from civilians up north. But Davis forced his own people to levy a percentage of their agricultural produce and forced them to provide slave labor with little or no compensation. Lincoln never did that to the Northern people. So go peddle your misinformation somewhere else.
88 posted on 12/16/2001 1:06:29 PM PST by Non-Sequitur
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