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To: Valpal1
Has there ever been a plea deal in a criminal case that WASN'T signed under "duress?"

How is the defendant who pleads guilty to a manslaughter charge in order to avoid a murder charge NOT under duress?

52 posted on 05/13/2020 6:42:46 PM PDT by Alberta's Child ("And somewhere in the darkness ... the gambler, he broke even.")
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To: Alberta's Child

There’s a big difference between a stressful circumstance and a prosecutor applying pressure to concede to a lie. Flynn’s defense is very simple. He didn’t have all the relevant facts to make an informed decision when he plead guilty. Partly because the prosecution withheld that information, and partly because his previous representation was not adequately representing him.


63 posted on 05/13/2020 6:50:44 PM PDT by Repealthe17thAmendment
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To: Alberta's Child

In criminal cases it is recognized that using threats to prosecute other family members is unacceptable duress.

It is logical to assume that a person knows the truth of his own actions and can rightly assess the risk/benefit in plea bargaining for himself. This is not true if the object of the beneficiary of the plea is a third party.

This is why the original defense lawyers and prosecutors kept the “side deal” off the books and hid it from the judge. This is a violation of the courts rules and procedures and also goes to incompetence and self dealing of the Covington law firm.


65 posted on 05/13/2020 6:51:42 PM PDT by Valpal1
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