[BroJoeK]

DiogenesLamp: "Clearly the introduction of European manufactured goods to the South at greatly reduced prices (due to removal of high tariffs) would be detrimental to Northern sales of similar products.
Would you have us believe that European goods would not have hurt Northern sales?"

DiogenesLamp's problem with this argument is he forgets, if he ever learned, the timeline of events in 1861.

1. In March Confederates passed their first tariff, basically the old 1856 US Tariff rates with some minor changes.
   
2. Over the next few months they collected about $2 million with it.
3. On May 21, 1861 Confederates passed a new tariff to take effect on August 31.
   This new tariff was said to be lower than the March tariff, but by August the Union blockade was taking effect and so it produced very little in revenues.

The Union blockade had been planned many years, if not decades, earlier as a response to potential rebellion, so it cannot have come as a surprise to the former Secretary of War, Jefferson Davis.

Bottom line: it's ludicrous to suggest merchants would want to pay tariffs twice by importing first to a Confederate city then re-exporting to a Union state.

[Bull Snipe]

DL is dealing in “what if history”. pure speculation of what might have been had the Confederacy been successful in existing for more than four years. IMO, wishful thinking on his part.