I’ll repeat again... is this a serious question?
I’ll explain it simply. I’m a seller in say... Texas. I have two buyers. One in New Jersey, and one in Oregon. For the New Jersey buyer, i charge and collect sales tax, and then pay that sales tax to New Jersey. For the Oregon buyer.... I don’t charge for sales tax, and therefore don’t collect any sales tax.
Make sense?
It doesn’t make sense since the SCOTUS says to collect sales tax.