sphinx:
"Germany can always recover its liabilities for WWII damages by suing France, which has invaded Germany far more times (ore-unification) than Germany has invaded France." What, are we going back to the 30-Years War, or Napoleon?
Since 1870, Germany launched three invasions of France, France invaded Germany zero times.
(Question: was Saarbrucken part of Germany in 1870?
Are you sure?)
sphinx: "And aren’t the French still owed reparations for Caesar’s conquest?"
Oh, Well...
Then Gauls owe reparations to Romans for their invasion in 390 BC.
;-)
Actually, in 1914 Germany was the last of the great powers to declare war. But the German mobilization was more efficient, and Germany, facing the necessity of a two-front war, was looking for a quick knockout, so the Germans marched first. France, however, was fully intent on invading Germany and threw its armies into Alsace-Lorraine. The initial French offensive, however, was thrown back, which is the only reason that the war on the Western Front was fought mostly on French rather than German soil.
France also declared war first in 1870. The fact that the Germans settled things quickly doesn't mean France was innocent.